Faride Firoozbakht has defined
three similar functions defining classes of integer numbers g(n,m) that
conjecturally containing at least one prime for each n>1 in the proper and
defined range for each function.
Here, I will only present one of these
functions - fi(n, m) in her original nomenclature -, the one that I consider more elegant by simple and general
(1):
- g(n,
m) = (n).m.(n-1).m.(n-2).m.
... (2).m.(1),
n>1, m=>0
- In this definition the dots "."
means concatenation of the numbers aside.
- Conjecture:
For each n>1, there exists at least one positive m, 0<=m<n^2, such that
g(n,m) is prime.
As a matter of fact, Faride has
already computed the earliest m values that validate her conjecture for each
n<300.
In particular for each 2<=n<=20 here
are these m values: 1, 5, 14, 5, 5, 9, 1, 1, 29, 23, 28, 13, 46, 22, 18,
116, 35, 18, 155,... (See
A083660)
This means, for example, that
7969594939291
is the earliest prime for g(7,m).
Question:
1) Can you
argument why this conjecture works, or to find a counterexample to it?
2) Do you think that
this kind of functions are interesting?
_____
(1)
See this and the other
two functions in the sequences
A083660
A082469 and
A083677
Luis Rodríguez wrote:
1.- The conjecture has a high probability of being
true because the mean value of its frequency is almost = n.
Demonstration:
Let be d = Number of digits of g(n,m)
Log = Neperian
logarithm
log = Decimal logarithm
dm = Aprox. number of digits of m.
dm = log(m) +1
N = g(n,m)
d= n + (n-1)dm = n(1+dm)-dm
Log(N) = Log(10^d) = 2.3d aprox.
Log(N) = 2.3n(1+dm) - 2.3dm
But 1/Log(N)= Probability of N being prime
As m can go from 1 to n^2 the mean value of
frequency of N being prime is = n^2/Log(N). The numbers N always end in 1,
so its probability is 2.5 times greater. Mean value = 2.5n/(2.3(1+dm))
aprox.
Example:
If n = 300 , Mean Value = 300/3.48 aprox. Expected
number of primes = 86
2.- This a simple puzzle without arithmetical
interest or consequences.
***